Full Version: This Seems To Be A Good Resource For Tough Questions
I enjoyed reading the questions people sent in and reading the answers from the staff. This website seems to be a good resource.
http://www.housetohouse.com/hth/biblequestions/index.htm
An example:
If the only law put to death with Jesus was the law of Moses, why does the Church of Christ refuse to obey Psalm 150?
Todd Clippard
This may be addressed on several fronts. First, the Psalms were not additions to the Law of Moses, but rather songs which may have been sung with or without instrumental accompaniment. Therefore Psalm 150 is not a command to be obeyed as a law.
The law of Christ supplanted all previous covenants and laws between God and man. This included, but was not limited to the law of Moses. Psalm 150 is not a part of the new covenant. Therefore, we "refuse" to obey it because it is not a law for men today.
However, there is a general sense in which the Psalms were “lumped together” with the Law of Moses. In Matthew 11:13, Jesus said “the law and prophets prophesied until John.” David was a prophet according to Acts 2:25-31, so his writing would be included in what was done away with by Christ at the cross.
Jesus said in Matthew 5:17-18, “Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”
At the cross, Jesus said, “I thirstf.” This was done to fulfill the scripture in Psalm 69:21. And in Luke 23:44 Jesus said “These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.”
Finally, John 12:34 says “We have heard out of the law that Christ abideth for ever: and how sayest thou, The Son of man must be lifted up? who is this Son of man?” To what “law” did they refer? Most commentators believe the reference was to Psalm 89:36 and Psalm 110:4.
One may also eee also Jesus’ statement in John 15:25 “they hated me without cause” as being part of the law, even though it comes from Psalm 69:4. So, the Psalms were included in what must be fulfilled that it might pass away as Jesus ushered in the new covenant.
However, one cannot help but wonder . . . does the church where the inquisitor worships use all the instruments mentioned in Psalm 150 at every worship service? Do they use the trumpet, timbrel, psaltry, and harp every time? If not, why do they refuse to obey Psalm 150?
Also, in Psalm 20 and Psalm 66, the Psalmist is apparently still offering burnt sacrifices. Do they still offer burnt sacrifices like the Psalmist? If not, why not?
QUOTE (flyingsquirrel @ Dec 27 2006, 02:51 PM) 
I enjoyed reading the questions people sent in and reading the answers from the staff. This website seems to be a good resource.
http://www.housetohouse.com/hth/biblequestions/index.htm
An example:
If the only law put to death with Jesus was the law of Moses, why does the Church of Christ refuse to obey Psalm 150?
Todd Clippard
This may be addressed on several fronts. First, the Psalms were not additions to the Law of Moses, but rather songs which may have been sung with or without instrumental accompaniment. Therefore Psalm 150 is not a command to be obeyed as a law.
The law of Christ supplanted all previous covenants and laws between God and man. This included, but was not limited to the law of Moses. Psalm 150 is not a part of the new covenant. Therefore, we "refuse" to obey it because it is not a law for men today.
However, there is a general sense in which the Psalms were “lumped together” with the Law of Moses. In Matthew 11:13, Jesus said “the law and prophets prophesied until John.” David was a prophet according to Acts 2:25-31, so his writing would be included in what was done away with by Christ at the cross.
Jesus said in Matthew 5:17-18, “Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”
At the cross, Jesus said, “I thirstf.” This was done to fulfill the scripture in Psalm 69:21. And in Luke 23:44 Jesus said “These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.”
Finally, John 12:34 says “We have heard out of the law that Christ abideth for ever: and how sayest thou, The Son of man must be lifted up? who is this Son of man?” To what “law” did they refer? Most commentators believe the reference was to Psalm 89:36 and Psalm 110:4.
One may also eee also Jesus’ statement in John 15:25 “they hated me without cause” as being part of the law, even though it comes from Psalm 69:4. So, the Psalms were included in what must be fulfilled that it might pass away as Jesus ushered in the new covenant.
However, one cannot help but wonder . . . does the church where the inquisitor worships use all the instruments mentioned in Psalm 150 at every worship service? Do they use the trumpet, timbrel, psaltry, and harp every time? If not, why do they refuse to obey Psalm 150?
Also, in Psalm 20 and Psalm 66, the Psalmist is apparently still offering burnt sacrifices. Do they still offer burnt sacrifices like the Psalmist? If not, why not?
http://www.housetohouse.com/hth/biblequestions/index.htm
An example:
If the only law put to death with Jesus was the law of Moses, why does the Church of Christ refuse to obey Psalm 150?
Todd Clippard
This may be addressed on several fronts. First, the Psalms were not additions to the Law of Moses, but rather songs which may have been sung with or without instrumental accompaniment. Therefore Psalm 150 is not a command to be obeyed as a law.
The law of Christ supplanted all previous covenants and laws between God and man. This included, but was not limited to the law of Moses. Psalm 150 is not a part of the new covenant. Therefore, we "refuse" to obey it because it is not a law for men today.
However, there is a general sense in which the Psalms were “lumped together” with the Law of Moses. In Matthew 11:13, Jesus said “the law and prophets prophesied until John.” David was a prophet according to Acts 2:25-31, so his writing would be included in what was done away with by Christ at the cross.
Jesus said in Matthew 5:17-18, “Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”
At the cross, Jesus said, “I thirstf.” This was done to fulfill the scripture in Psalm 69:21. And in Luke 23:44 Jesus said “These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.”
Finally, John 12:34 says “We have heard out of the law that Christ abideth for ever: and how sayest thou, The Son of man must be lifted up? who is this Son of man?” To what “law” did they refer? Most commentators believe the reference was to Psalm 89:36 and Psalm 110:4.
One may also eee also Jesus’ statement in John 15:25 “they hated me without cause” as being part of the law, even though it comes from Psalm 69:4. So, the Psalms were included in what must be fulfilled that it might pass away as Jesus ushered in the new covenant.
However, one cannot help but wonder . . . does the church where the inquisitor worships use all the instruments mentioned in Psalm 150 at every worship service? Do they use the trumpet, timbrel, psaltry, and harp every time? If not, why do they refuse to obey Psalm 150?
Also, in Psalm 20 and Psalm 66, the Psalmist is apparently still offering burnt sacrifices. Do they still offer burnt sacrifices like the Psalmist? If not, why not?
Amen
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