Here is a problem employing the use of prophetic language wherein we count "each day for a year". Was Jesus the Messiah? Daniel 9:24-26 (KJV) Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy. 25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times. 26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

Quoting from "The False prophet": "Almost 100 years after Gabriel spoke to Daniel, a special decree was granted by Artaxerxes I to Nehemiah (444-445BC). This is the ONLY decree recorded in the Bible that gave the Jews permission to "restore Jerusalem and rebuild its walls". The Messiah, Jesus, was crucified in 32 or 33AD. But are those 69 weeks 69 sevens of years? If so, then we have 69 x 7 or 483 Hebrew years. Using a multiplier of .9857 to adjust Hebrew years to solar years yields: 483 x .9857 = 476 solar years. Artaxerxes' decree in 444BC + 476 years = 32AD, the cross right to the year!"

"But what about those six points that were supposed to be fulfilled during these 70 weeks? Ah-ha! All but one were fulfilled at the cross. Did not Jesus (1) finish transgression eternally, (2) make an end of sin, (3) make reconciliation for iniquity, (4) bring in everlasting righteousness, and (6) anoint the Most holy with His own precious blood. Of course, praise the Lord! Point (5), however, was left out: 'Seal up vision and prophecy'. This is where those peculiar 7 weeks and 62 weeks come in:
7 x 7 Hebrew years = 48.3 Solar years. 444BC - 48.3 is 395.7BC, Malachi written. Malachi was inspired to write the last book of the Old Testament in about 396BC. The Scripture to the Jews was complete, and no more was written until the New Testament era! So Old Testament vision and prophecy were indeed 'sealed up'. As one dear Rabbi lamented in about 200BC, 'The Holy Spirit has departed from Israel,' and until this very day, the Jews, as a nation, have not been permitted to see any further. The Lord has blinded their eyes so they could not recognize Jesus as their Messiah (Romans 11:8, 2 Corinthians 3:15)."

The use of prophetic day=year language is certainly nothing new. In fact the interpretations that some use today are indeed what are new, especially those from within the last 120 years or so. As mentioned earlier Scripture instructs us to: Job 8:8 For enquire, I pray thee, of the former age, and prepare thyself to the search of their fathers:

Quoting again: from "The False Prophet": "In 1569, the great Anabaptist theologian, Thieleman van Braght, wrote the following in Martyrs Mirror, pages 21-24: 'a thousand two hundred and threescore days, which reckoned according to prophetic language means as many years… let it be reckoned as it may, say we, as a very long period of time.' Two hunderd years later, Matthew Henry, in his 'Commentary of the Whole Bible', came to the same conclusion (Vol VI, page 1157 column 1, para. 2): '….if the beginning of that interval could be ascertained, this number of prophetic days, taking a day for a year, would give us a prospect of when the end might be.'"
A couple of the verses to which they might have looked are:
Ezekiel 4:6 And when thou hast accomplished them, lie again on thy right side, and thou shalt bear the iniquity of the house of Judah forty days: I have appointed thee each day for a year.
Numbers 14:34 After the number of the days in which ye searched the land, [even] forty days, each day for a year, shall ye bear your iniquities, [even] forty years, and ye shall know my breach of promise.

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I know you're looking for something else here but l'm going to sway the topic just a little because l see something here that l just posted about in another string.



I was posting about the method for rebuking a brother that is sin...1) going to him
2) bringing and elder...3) taking it before the church...and finally 4) turning him over to Satan for a time.... Didn't Jesus do all that for the Jews?....AND YET!



If a person is turned over to Satan for a time...wouldn't the Lord himself have to open his eyes in order for him to turn? So the person even in the new testament that has fallen away and turned out will be reconciled because of the covenant!

Right?! I think l'm going to start shouting!